Current SY0-601 Exam Dumps [2023] Complete CompTIA Exam Smoothly
SY0-601 Premium PDF & Test Engine Files with 603 Questions & Answers
CompTIA SY0-601 certification exam is designed for IT professionals who are interested in pursuing a career in cybersecurity, including security administrators, network administrators, systems administrators, and security analysts. CompTIA Security+ Exam certification is also suitable for individuals who want to improve their knowledge and skills in cybersecurity and enhance their career opportunities. The SY0-601 exam covers a broad range of security topics, including cryptography, identity and access management, network security, and risk management. It is a vendor-neutral certification that provides a solid foundation for individuals to pursue advanced security certifications.
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CompTIA SY0-601 offers an impressive career path, so it’s important to excel in this exam. A combination of credible study resources, the right focus, and on-the-job training will support you to pass your CompTIA SY0-601 test easily.
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NEW QUESTION # 103
An analyst is reviewing logs associated with an attack. The logs indicate an attacker downloaded a malicious file that was quarantined by the AV solution. The attacker utilized a local non-administrative account to restore the malicious file to a new location. The file was then used by another process to execute a payload. Which of the following attacks did the analyst observe?
- A. Replay attack
- B. Request forgeries
- C. Injection
- D. Privilege escalation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cross-site request forgery, also known as one-click attack or session riding and abbreviated as CSRF (sometimes pronounced sea-surf[1]) or XSRF, is a type of malicious exploit of a website where unauthorized commands are submitted from a user that the web application trusts.[2] There are many ways in which a malicious website can transmit such commands; specially-crafted image tags, hidden forms, and JavaScript XMLHttpRequests, for example, can all work without the user's interaction or even knowledge. Unlike cross-site scripting (XSS), which exploits the trust a user has for a particular site, CSRF exploits the trust that a site has in a user's browser.[3] In a CSRF attack, an innocent end user is tricked by an attacker into submitting a web request that they did not intend. This may cause actions to be performed on the website that can include inadvertent client or server data leakage, change of session state, or manipulation of an end user's account.
NEW QUESTION # 104
A user downloaded an extension for a browser, and the uses device later became infected. The analyst who is investigating the incident saw various logs where the attacker was hiding activity by deleting data The following was observed running:
Which of the following is the malware using to execute the attack?
- A. Python
- B. Macros
- C. PowerShell
- D. Bash
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 105
A cybersecurity analyst needs to implement secure authentication to third-party websites without users' passwords. Which of the following would be the BEST way to achieve this objective?
- A. SAML
- B. PAP
- C. SSO
- D. OAuth
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 106
Select the appropriate attack and remediation from each drop-down list to label the corresponding attack with its remediation.
INSTRUCTIONS
Not all attacks and remediation actions will be used.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 107
A security analyst has been asked to investigate a situation after the SOC started to receive alerts from the SIEM. The analyst first looks at the domain controller and finds the following events:
To better understand what is going on, the analyst runs a command and receives the following output:
Based on the analyst's findings, which of the following attacks is being executed?
- A. Spraying
- B. Keylogger
- C. Brute-force
- D. Credential harvesting
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 108
A security analyst is investigating an incident to determine what an attacker was able to do on a compromised laptop. The analyst reviews the following SIEM log:
Which of the following describes the method that was used to compromise the laptop?
- A. An attacker was able to bypass application whitelisting by emailing a spreadsheet attachment with an embedded PowerShell in the file
- B. An attacker was able to move laterally from PC1 to PC2 using a pass-the-hash attack
- C. An attacker was able to install malware to the CAasdf234 folder and use it to gam administrator nights and launch Outlook
- D. An attacker was able to phish user credentials successfully from an Outlook user profile
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 109
During an assessment, a systems administrator found several hosts running FTP and decided to immediately block FTP communications at the firewall. Which of the following describes the greatest risk associated with using FTP?
- A. Private data can be leaked
- B. FTP is prohibited by internal policy.
- C. Credentials are sent in cleartext.
- D. Users can upload personal files
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Credentials are sent in cleartext is the greatest risk associated with using FTP. FTP is an old protocol that does not encrypt the data or the credentials that are transmitted over the network. This means that anyone who can capture the network traffic can see the usernames and passwords of the FTP users, as well as the files they are transferring. This can lead to data breaches, identity theft, and unauthorized access. Private data can be leaked (Option A) is a possible consequence of using FTP, but not the root cause of the risk. FTP is prohibited by internal policy (Option B) is a compliance issue, but not a technical risk. Users can upload personal files (Option C) is a management issue, but not a security risk
https://www.infosectrain.com/blog/comptia-security-sy0-601-domain-5-governance-risk-and-compliance/
NEW QUESTION # 110
Which of the following roles would MOST likely have direct access to the senior management team?
- A. Data owner
- B. Data protection officer
- C. Data controller
- D. Data custodian
Answer: B
Explanation:
A data protection officer (DPO) is a role that oversees the data protection strategy and compliance of an organization. A DPO is responsible for ensuring that the organization follows data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), and protects the privacy rights of data subjects. A DPO also acts as a liaison between the organization and data protection authorities, as well as data subjects and other stakeholders.
A DPO would most likely have direct access to the senior management team, as they need to report on data protection issues, risks, and incidents, and advise on data protection policies and practices.
The other options are not correct because:
a) Data custodian is a role that implements and maintains the technical controls and procedures for data security and integrity. A data custodian does not have direct access to the senior management team, as they are more involved in operational tasks than strategic decisions.
b) Data owner is a role that determines the classification and usage of data within an organization. A data owner does not have direct access to the senior management team, as they are more involved in business functions than data protection compliance.
d) Data controller is a role that determines the purposes and means of processing personal data within an organization. A data controller does not have direct access to the senior management team, as they are more involved in data processing activities than data protection oversight.
According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 2.3 Given a scenario, implement secure protocols:
"A data protection officer (DPO) is a role that oversees the data protection strategy and compliance of an organization."
NEW QUESTION # 111
The security administrator has installed a new firewall which implements an implicit DENY policy by default.
Answer:
Explanation:
Click on the firewall and configure it to allow ONLY the following communication.
1. The Accounting workstation can ONLY access the web server on the public network over the default HTTPS port. The accounting workstation should not access other networks.
2. The HR workstation should be restricted to communicate with the Financial server ONLY, over the default SCP port
3. The Admin workstation should ONLY be able to access the servers on the secure network over the default TFTP port.
Instructions: The firewall will process the rules in a top-down manner in order as a first match The port number must be typed in and only one port number can be entered per rule Type ANY for all ports. The original firewall configuration can be reset at any time by pressing the reset button. Once you have met the simulation requirements, click save and then Done to submit.
Hot Area:
Section: Network Security
Explanation:
Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren't specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you're denied access by default.
Rule #1 allows the Accounting workstation to ONLY access the web server on the public network over the default HTTPS port, which is TCP port 443.
Rule #2 allows the HR workstation to ONLY communicate with the Financial server over the default SCP port, which is TCP Port 22 Rule #3 & Rule #4 allow the Admin workstation to ONLY access the Financial and Purchasing servers located on the secure network over the default TFTP port, which is Port 69.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp. 26, 44 http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_TCP_and_UDP_port_numbers References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp. 26, 44 http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_TCP_and_UDP_port_numbers
NEW QUESTION # 112
A user recently entered a username and password into a recruiting application website that had been forged to look like the legitimate site Upon investigation, a security analyst the identifies the following:
- The legitimate websites IP address is 10.1.1.20 and eRecruit local
resolves to the IP
- The forged website's IP address appears to be 10.2.12.99. based on
NetFtow records
- AH three at the organization's DNS servers show the website correctly resolves to the legitimate IP
- DNS query logs show one of the three DNS servers returned a result of
10.2.12.99 (cached) at the approximate time of the suspected
compromise.
Which of the following MOST likely occurred?
- A. An ARP poisoning attack was successfully executed
- B. A reverse proxy was used to redirect network traffic
- C. An attacker temporarily pawned a name server
- D. An SSL strip MITM attack was performed
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 113
During a recent penetration test, the tester discovers large amounts of data were exfiltrated over the course of
12 months via the Internet. The penetration tester stops the test to inform the client of the findings. Which of the following should be the client's NEXT step to mitigate the issue?
- A. Conduct a full vulnerability scan to identify possible vulnerabilities.
- B. Perform containment on the critical servers and resources
- C. Disconnect the entire infrastructure from the Internet
- D. Review the firewall and identify the source of the active connection.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 114
Which of the following exercises should an organization use to improve its incident response process?
- A. Recovery
- B. Tabletop
- C. Failover
- D. Replication
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A tabletop exercise is a type of simulation exercise that involves discussing hypothetical scenarios and testing the incident response plan in a low-stress environment. A tabletop exercise can help an organization to improve its incident response process by identifying gaps, weaknesses, roles, responsibilities, communication channels, etc., and by evaluating the effectiveness and efficiency of the plan.
NEW QUESTION # 115
In a phishing attack, the perpetrator is pretending to be someone in a position of power in an effort to influence the target to click or follow the desired response. Which of the following principles is being used?
- A. Authority
- B. Consensus
- C. Intimidation
- D. Scarcity
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 116
A network administrator needs to determine Ihe sequence of a server farm's logs. Which of the following should the administrator consider? (Select TWO).
- A. Time stamps
- B. Reports
- C. Hash values
- D. Time offset
- E. Chain of custody
- F. Tags
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
A server farm's logs are records of events that occur on a group of servers that provide the same service or function. Logs can contain information such as date, time, source, destination, message, error code, and severity level. Logs can help administrators monitor the performance, security, and availability of the servers and troubleshoot any issues.
To determine the sequence of a server farm's logs, the administrator should consider the following factors:
Time stamps: Time stamps are indicators of when an event occurred on a server. Time stamps can help administrators sort and correlate events across different servers based on chronological order. However, time stamps alone may not be sufficient to determine the sequence of events if the servers have different time zones or clock settings.
Time offset: Time offset is the difference between the local time of a server and a reference time, such as Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) or Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). Time offset can help administrators adjust and synchronize the time stamps of different servers to a common reference time and eliminate any discrepancies caused by time zones or clock settings.
NEW QUESTION # 117
A security engineer needs to enhance MFA access to sensitive areas in a building. A key card and fingerprint scan are already in use.
Which of the following would add another factor of authentication?
- A. Retina scan
- B. Keypad PIN
- C. SMS text
- D. Hard token
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 118
A systems analyst determines the source of a high number of connections to a web server that were initiated by ten different IP addresses that belong to a network block in a specific country. Which of the following techniques will the systems analyst MOST likely implement to address this issue?
- A. SIEM
- B. Firewall rules
- C. DLP
- D. Content filter
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. The systems analyst can use firewall rules to block connections from the ten IP addresses in question, or from the entire network block in the specific country. This would be a quick and effective way to address the issue of high connections to the web server initiated by these IP addresses.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book, Chapter 5: "Network Security".
NEW QUESTION # 119
The following are the logs of a successful attack.
Which of the following controls would be BEST to use to prevent such a breach in the future?
- A. Account expiration
- B. Password history
- C. Password complexity
- D. Account lockout
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 120
A company is providing security awareness training regarding the importance of not forwarding social media messages from unverified sources. Which of the following risks would this training help to prevent?
- A. Identity fraud
- B. SPIMs
- C. Hoaxes
- D. Credential harvesting
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Hoax
A hoax is a falsehood deliberately fabricated to masquerade as the truth. It is distinguishable from errors in observation or judgment, rumors, urban legends, pseudo sciences, and April Fools' Day events that are passed along in good faith by believers or as jokes.
Identity theft
Identity theft occurs when someone uses another person's personal identifying information, like their name, identifying number, or credit card number, without their permission, to commit fraud or other crimes. The term identity theft was coined in 1964. Identity fraud (also known as identity theft or crime) involves someone using another individual's personal information without consent, often to obtain a benefit.
Credential Harvesting
Credential Harvesting (or Account Harvesting) is the use of MITM attacks, DNS poisoning, phishing, and other vectors to amass large numbers of credentials (username / password combinations) for reuse.
NEW QUESTION # 121
A penetration tester successfully gained access ta a company's network, The investigating analyst detarmines malicious traffic connacted through the WAP despite filtering rules being in place, Logging in to the connected switch, the analyst sees the folowing in the ARP table:
Which of the following cid the penetration tester MOST liely use?
- A. MAG eioning
- B. Evil twin
- C. Man in the middle
- D. ARP poisoning
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 122
A systems administrator needs to install a new wireless network for authenticated guest access. The wireless network should support 802. IX using the most secure encryption and protocol available.
Perform the following steps:
1. Configure the RADIUS server.
2. Configure the WiFi controller.
3. Preconfigure the client for an
incoming guest. The guest AD
credentials are:
User: guest01
Password: guestpass
Answer:
Explanation:
Wifi Controller
SSID: CORPGUEST
SHARED KEY: Secret
AAA server IP: 192.168.1.20
PSK: Blank
Authentication type: WPA2-EAP-PEAP-MSCHAPv2
Controller IP: 192.168.1.10
Radius Server
Shared Key: Secret
Client IP: 192.168.1.10
Authentication Type: Active Directory
Server IP: 192.168.1.20
Wireless Client
SSID: CORPGUEST
Username: guest01
Userpassword: guestpass
PSK: Blank
Authentication type: WPA2-Enterprise
NEW QUESTION # 123
Which of the following would MOST likely be identified by a credentialed scan but would be missed by an uncredentialed scan?
- A. CVEs related to non-Microsoft systems such as printers and switches.
- B. Critical infrastructure vulnerabilities on non-IP protocols.
- C. Missing patches for third-party software on Windows workstations and servers.
- D. Vulnerabilities with a CVSS score greater than 6.9.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 124
Leveraging the information supplied below, complete the CSR for the server to set up TLS (HTTPS)
* Hostname: ws01
* Domain: comptia.org
* IPv4: 10.1.9.50
* IPV4: 10.2.10.50
* Root: home.aspx
* DNS CNAME:homesite.
Instructions:
Drag the various data points to the correct locations within the CSR. Extension criteria belong in the let hand column and values belong in the corresponding row in the right hand column.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 125
Which of the following describes the continuous delivery software development methodology?
- A. Agile
- B. V-shaped
- C. Spiral
- D. Waterfall
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 126
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The SY0-601 exam consists of 90 questions, which are multiple-choice and performance-based. SY0-601 exam is designed to test the candidate's knowledge and skills in identifying and mitigating security threats, implementing secure network designs, and managing access control. SY0-601 exam is also designed to test the candidate's knowledge of the latest security technologies, such as cloud security, mobile device security, and virtualization security.
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